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Scripture: History or Fantasy?



Fung Koo
January 7th, 2009, 02:15 PM
If we are going to select a scientific principle to apply to philosophical questions, why not Godel's Theorem which would tell us, given a goddess, there is now way we could describe the goddess because our system lacks the terms. But, we might be able to chart some consequences of the goddess existing.

Seems to me that Goedel's Theorem is pretty much just another way of saying the same thing.

I question your interpretation somewhat of "no way we could describe the goddess due to a lack of terms." The second incompleteness theorem describes the first incompleteness theorem as complete, and suggests that a second-order system is required to complete the first. It also indicates that a lower-order system cannot describe a higher order system of itself, and as such obeys the first incompleteness theorem such that any singular system is inherently incomplete.

So it's more like there are infinite terms, rather than no terms. Terms upon terms required to establish still more terms. And because it's infinite, it may as well be "no terms," but if "no terms" was the case then we'd be talking non-formal systems which, by definition, have no terms.

...ouch, that hurt. :rolleyes:

If we break that down into something a little more legibly colloquial, you might say it something like "Nothing can describe itself completely without reference to something else." If we infer the implications of the assertion to any functional material system (finite), we get interesting analogues with social interaction. Sort of like my assertion that sentience is necessarily reflective -- we aren't sentient unless we have another sentient thing to compare ourselves to. This also accords with the assertion that morality can't exist in a solitary system -- it only exists where two or more interacting systems create a reflection to define any single moral system.

Goedel's theorem isn't a loop, though. The second theorem completes the first, but the second theorem is demonstrably incomplete based on the application of the first theorem. So it's infinitely regressive and linear.

It also corresponds in that multiple systems (which we can substitute as what I keep calling "specifics," or in the philosophical term, a "logic") are required to establish the completeness of the larger system. Specifically, the theorem deals with the completeness of formal systems (logic), so essentially what we're talking here is that an infinite number of formal systems are required to complete any one finite formal system. (An infinite number of logics are required uphold any single logic -- no logic can prove itself.) In other words, the more you specify a particular quality of a thing (such a position of a particle), an infinite set of formal systems are required to support that specification. In the end, the infinite systems only prove the system, and that system's corresponding and non-exclusive specification.

Which, to me, is pretty much the exact thing that the uncertainty principle is saying. The more specifically we try to "locate" a thing, the less we know about everything other than the process/system/logic we used to locate the thing.

It also goes perfectly with the assertion that the Laws of the Universe are not Laws at all, but averages. Assuming we can define physics as a formal system, insofar as it attempts to describe the relationships between all functioning components of a more-or-less stable universe, then physics is just a formal system/logic as any other. If they were "laws" proper, then the set/system/logic would be finite and, according to Goedel's Theorem, incomplete by reference to itself. Something outside the laws would have to exist to complete the laws.

So then physics as a formal system/logic is necessarily incomplete. Indeed, any formal system/logic would be incomplete without a second order system/logic. Physics comes out of math, which Goedel has proven incomplete, so all sub-systems/logics that branch from any formal arithmetic system are just expanding second-order systems. It's incomplete without its pair, the non-formal system, or non-logic.

This is where the whole thing goes airy-fairy though, and into that bucket of impossible, non-linear, non-recursive, inductive thought. In other words, it goes to the classically feminine.

And then we get stuck in the Liar's Paradox, where we're requiring ourselves to apply rules to a thing that is, by definition, without rules and undefinable. You can't formalize the non-formal.

And we're back at God as the Ultimate Generalization.

kongming
April 12th, 2011, 04:55 AM
Wow, this thread made it all the way to 2009? When it started I had a full head of hair: I'm starting to think there's a connection between this and my now shaved head. WASSNER! *shakes fist*

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JRMurdock
April 12th, 2011, 08:48 AM
KONMING!

I really need to stop by here more often. Last time I was here, I didn't have a book out LOL (I still have a full head of hair :D )

Gary Wassner
March 25th, 2012, 06:40 PM
I cannot believe how long it's been since I've posted here. Shame on me. But with what's going on in the US elections, it's hard not to revitalize the discussion. How do politicians invoke God? How do they run for office on a religious platform in a country who's constitution demands the separation of Church and State? Well, we all know that never happened anyway. But still, what is causing this regression? Science gets smarter and we get dumber. The disconnect is amazing.

Scripture is once again history. God is once again real. Politicians can speak of God and millions of people actually understand what they're talking about. Amazing. I don't understand. I don't get it.

Fung Koo
March 26th, 2012, 03:25 AM
I was inspired by a TED talk (http://www.ted.com/talks/alain_de_botton_atheism_2_0.html) to write an Atheism 2.0 manifesto ("Ok, so you don't believe in God. Now what?"), and was thinking about this very topic.

I think the key is that there is a separation between Church and State, sure, but there is not a division between Church and Elected Official. No constitution demands an elected official act as if they are an atheist once they are elected. Secular government is not a-theist but non-theist -- or perhaps more accurately (theoretically) multi-theistic.

If an atheist runs for office, should s/he make that part of his/her platform?

If you are an atheist, if you won the Presidency would you actively work against religion?

If we want atheistic values (reason, rationalism, empiricism...?) to be part of the political conversation, as Mr. de Botton suggests, we have a lot to learn from religions. Right now atheists are largely stuck on being atheistic and haven't moved on to the next step. So you're an atheist -- now what?

I don't think atheism ends with rejecting God -- it begins there. We need to figure out the next step and define what we're for rather than only being defined by what we're against.

So I'm against religion politics... but what am I for? And then, how do I get everyone on board?

kged
March 26th, 2012, 11:18 AM
I can't say I've ever really struggled over that question. Perhaps I am a primitive creature, but it's never given me too much trouble. I am "for" the superficially simple code which I adopted many years ago: there are only two sins, cruelty and cowardice. Avoid those two, and your treatment of yourself and of the rest of the world should be irreproachable. And it's not as easy as it sounds, I assure you.

Would I be attracted to a candidate who was openly rational and sceptical? Most certainly. And the faith-baiting which goes on amongst American politicians horrifies me, I must admit. But I would not vote against a person of faith for that alone; all the most intelligent and able people I know are religious. If it were two candidates of equal value, one a critical thinker and one a believer, I'd go for the former - but I'd never vote for an inferior candidate because they were irreligious.

How do we get everyone on board - simple. It's pleasing that there really is a commonality between the religions of the world. Their core values in the end are much the same - compassion, kindness, doing unto others etc. Despite what many of the faithful believe, these ideas have been central to the best in human thought for as long as we have been thinking because of their value, and not because they are The Word. I find that offensive, if I'm honest; charity, selflessness, humane and decent treatment of each other - we invented those things. No supernatural Thing put them into us, WE did it. We should be proud of that. And that is what we rally around - fundamental human decency, which is just about universally agreed upon (albeit not so widely practiced). We don't need any deities marking our scorecards, we just need to try being nice to each other, for a change.

Fung Koo
March 27th, 2012, 12:52 AM
Would I be attracted to a candidate who was openly rational and sceptical?

...If it were two candidates of equal value, one a critical thinker and one a believer

...irreligious.

This is what I mean by defining what atheists are for. Are atheists "openly rational and sceptical" as a generic default? In my experience, a lot of atheists are hotheaded blowhards whose sole reason for being an atheist is that they are against religion. They can be extremely closed mined and in no way are "critical thinkers" -- they are "believers" too, in that they believe they are right and religious people are wrong, and that's about where the conversation ends. Rejecting God doesn't suddenly make the world, the universe, and existence in general suddenly make sense without some serious critical thought, but many atheists I run into haven't even tried to think about it critically. They just know everyone else is surely wrong. I don't want to vote for that atheist, and there's nothing I can point to give me a general sense of "atheist like me" or "atheist not like me."

I find the idea of an atheist as irreligious uncomfortable. "Atheist," the word, etymologically includes "God" and being an atheist is defined basically as against God. Irreligiousness can range from a mere absence of religion to open hostility. I would contend that a simple absence of religion does not constitute irreligiousness -- again, it's defining atheism as the abnormal state, as if atheists are lacking a particular "normal" thing everyone else has. As an atheist, isn't it everyone else who is lacking? What is the language we should use to describe others? What is the language we should use to describe ourselves? I don't like using the religious world's terminology for what I think, feel, and believe. It describes me as inadequate, contrary, backward, incomplete, antagonistic....

I don't think we can expect atheism to function in politics until we have words of inclusion to use. Someone with the barest smidgeon of religious belief has a range of inclusive terminology they can use to gain voter trust and rally the people to a cause. Why wouldn't you use that?

kged
March 27th, 2012, 04:09 AM
In my experience, a lot of atheists are hotheaded blowhards whose sole reason for being an atheist is that they are against religion. They can be extremely closed mined and in no way are "critical thinkers"
*Sigh* All too true.

kongming
March 27th, 2012, 07:42 AM
KONMING!

I really need to stop by here more often. Last time I was here, I didn't have a book out LOL (I still have a full head of hair :D )

Same here! But I don't have a full head of hair :P

Gary Wassner
March 27th, 2012, 12:43 PM
Perfectly sound answer. And I agree.

I don't think religion should play any part in public policy. If we want to have a discussion on ethics, then let's have one during the debates. But if you begin with God, you might as well end the debate right at the onset.

 

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