Hey folks
I just read the First Law trilogy of Abercrombie. I quite liked it, and all the loose ends were masterfully tied up. Except one: I still don't understand, did Bayaz kill Juvens or not? Now, it doesn't matter who killed whom a thousand years ago, but I do wonder was there some conclusive evidence one way or another that I missed?
Looking forward to hearing from you.
I would say that, evidence viewed in the books thus far, would lead one to believe that Bayaz has done exactly that and for reasons unknown to most other characters, not to mention the reader. I'm assuming that this backstory will be fodder for future plot elements that have a significant portion of their genesis from those times/events.
What is the evidence? Other than him being a murderous manipulative genocidal asshole in general...
Well, that and his evasiveness. Even though the surface of things certainly makes him look bad, he was in no hurry to clarify or explain things. I would expect anyone, whose image is wrongfully and deceitfully tarnished, to counter with varying degrees of aggressiveness.Originally Posted by fybonacci
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