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June 16th, 2001, 09:06 AM
#1
A question about "20,000 Leagues Under the Sea"
Now usually when I read Science Fiction, I'm not a big fan of "victorian age" Science Fiction, but in this case I absolutely loved the novel "20,000 Leagues Under the Sea" by Jules Verne! Now, I have a question about this novel: When this sci-fi novel was written,which I assume was back in the early 1900s, was it considered speculative Sci-Fi, such as Tad Williams' "Otherland Saga" is considered now?
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June 16th, 2001, 10:16 AM
#2
\m/ BEER \m/
Moderator
I don't know that the term Science Fiction was even used back then, it was just considered litrature.
HG Wells wrote around that time as well, and he still stands up today.
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June 16th, 2001, 11:13 AM
#3
A servant of Lord Arioch
Actually, Verne wrote that book somewhere in the 1860s...
He is considered by many to be the first science fiction writer. So if he was first, i suppose the term didn't exist yet.
Btw, what the hell is speculative sci fi?
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June 17th, 2001, 07:20 AM
#4
I think Z16 means speculative fiction as opposed to Sci/fi.
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June 17th, 2001, 09:12 AM
#5
A servant of Lord Arioch
Speculative Fiction is a generic name for Fantasy/SciFi/Horror.
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June 17th, 2001, 09:14 AM
#6
High Priest of Cainism
In retrospect, Jules Verne is one of the original SF writers, but there was really no demarcation of literature into categories back then. However, most authorities consider Mary Shelley's Frankenstein to be the first true SF novel.
Verne and Wells are the true pioneers of SF. The interesting thing about Verne is that most of the predictions he made actually came true. I tend not to read him as straightforward SF, but rather as one of the classics.
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